And then in one of the exercises I'm asked to tr*nsl*t*:When the object of the sentence is a pronoun then the pronoun is replaced by its possessive adjective placed before the verbal noun. The possessive adjectives mo , do and a (his/its) lenite the following word whenever possible:
Cha bu toil leis m' fhaicinn? - He would not like to see me?
B' fheàrr leis d' fhaicinn? - He would prefer to see you?
An urrainn dhì a thogail? - Can she lift him?
to which I answered, based on the aboveWe can't come to see you tomorrow.
but the answer actually given isChan urrainn dhuinn a thighinn d' fhaicinn a-màireach.
I'm already familiar with gam/gad + vn, so that's what I'd have answered had I not read that paragraph above. So my question is, when is it one or the other? My best guess is:Chan urrainn dhuinn a thighinn gad fhaicinn a-màireach.
Chan eil me gad fhaicinn.
Chan urrainn dhomh d' fhaicinn. (directly following the verb phrase)
Chan urrainn dhomh a thighinn gad fhaicinn. (not directly following the verb phrase)
Is that correct?